tuttle wrote: 12 Dec 2022, 12:55
Wosbald wrote: 12 Dec 2022, 12:17
+JMJ+
tuttle wrote: 12 Dec 2022, 11:57Speaking as one who also affirms that the Eucharist is more than a mere memorial, so I'm not trying to defend that position, how does one make jive the idea of being both here and there (ie at the cross) with our Lord commanding us to "do this in remembrance of me". That is to say, how do we remember, as we're commanded, if we are truly present?
It would seem 'being truly present' would by it's very nature discount remembering. Remembering seems to be the very thing one would do when
not present, but it's the very thing we're told to do.
But what if "Remember" meant … like … Re-Member? As in the opposite of Dis-Member. To put all the pieces of the Body together in one place, where the Eagles gather?
English is super cool like that.
But...anamnēsin is the word here and it doesn't work that way.
I do think we happen to participate with that reality, that the benefits of that reality are accessed by way of the 'do this' bit, and yet to describe it as an encounter of the 'going back in time' historical event seems to de-emphasize the exact thing our Lord told us to do.
I do appreciate the wormhole explanation, and I do believe in we are participating in the event (not again as new, but always as ever now) and yet it must be more than a wormhole through space and time to enter another space time, because the Lamb was slain before the foundation of the world. Maybe it's less a time tear and more like accessing a river whose source sprung at a certain place and time. To drink from that water is to participate with the source and does not do away with remembering. I've already thought of some ways this doesn't quite work as a thorough analogy, but I think it's able to hold some of the tension of participation and remembrance.
And to piggy back on Del's response about Pharisaic Judaism- the English language puns actually work really well because they do indeed convey the idea that the Greek word
anamnesis was used to interpret the Hebrew as it was understood in the Second Jewish Temple period and it really does go back to the Passover remembrances as they had been practiced by the Israelites since time beyond historical (non-biblical) record. And there are ties to Greek Platonism and how it viewed
anamnesis- the Septuagint translators working out of Alexandria had access to the finest Greek thought of the period and Philo was part of their lineage.
As I alluded to in the thread on Ordinances, all of our English words that begin with "re-" pretty much apply to this Second Temple/Neo-Platonic view of anamnesis. In the Orthodox liturgy this is expressed in the ever-occurring word on our feasts "Today". "Today the Virgin gives birth to the Transcendent One, and the earth offers a cave to the Unapproachable One!" (Kontakion for Christmas) "Today Thou hast appeared to the universe, and Thy light, O Lord, has shone on us, who with understanding praise Thee: Thou hast come and revealed Thyself, O Light Unapproachable!" (Kontakion of Theophany) "Today is the beginning of our salvation, the revelation of the eternal mystery! The Son of God becomes the Son of the Virgin as Gabriel announces the coming of Grace. (Troparion of the Annunciation). When "Today" isn't used the feast is always spoken of in the present tense - which I know is preserved in the West when all say together "Christ
is risen."
The Sacraments are always an invitation to participate in the life of Christ in the here and now. The Eucharist is our regular invitation to feast on that sacrifice slain on Calvary, yet also before the foundation of the world- none of us, Catholic nor Orthodox, have ever held that the sacrifice of the Eucharist is sacrificing Christ anew. What we are doing is approaching the new Passover of Calvary in that time and place that transcends all time and space and partaking of the Body and Blood of He who said "My flesh is food indeed and My blood is drink indeed" (John 6:55)
Which, note (and apologies- from here on grew from a parenthetical that got out of hand): St John has no Supper narrative. He goes straight from the washing of the feet to Judas Iscariot receiving a piece of bread in the "who will betray you" scene. Instead of including the Eucharist in his Last Supper, St John spends the entirety of the much earlier John chapter 6 really hammering home the theology of the Eucharist. Given how his entire first chapter is devoted almost entirely to debunking proto-Gnostics and their denial of an actual physical Incarnation of God, I wonder what he is trying to get across in his almost chapter long digression on Christ and His Body being Food?
And I have no authoritative backing at hand, but I find it highly suggestive that the one element of the Last Supper that St John includes is Judas eating of the bread. We know that by the time St Peter wrote his Epistles that he knew of St Paul's writings (II Peter 3:15-16). And we know that St John was highly familiar with many of the Asian churches St Paul founded, especially Ephesus, at around the same time St Peter would have been writing (Revelations... just, Revelations, guys) and this was most likely prior to the writing of the Gospel of St John. We can be fairly confident that St John was more than familiar with the epistles of St Paul- and it is highly probable that at the time he wrote his Gospel that St Paul's collected letters were already being read alongside Hebrew scripture in the liturgy of the time, especially in the Asian churches St John was ministering to in his later life. All that is to say- the
only part of the Last Supper narrative St John recounts is Judas receiving the bread. Now read I Corinthians 11:27.